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Cisco 200-201 Exam Dumps
Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Total Questions : 476
Update Date : July 09, 2026
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200-201 Exam Dumps
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Cisco 200-201 Sample Questions
Question # 1An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?
A. Firepower
B. Email Security Appliance
C. Web Security Appliance
D. Stealthwatch
Question # 2
Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?
A. encryption
B. load balancing
C. NAT/PAT
D. tunneling
Question # 3
Which statement describes patch management?
A. scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities
B. managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes
C. process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates
D. workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities
Question # 4
Developers must implement tasks on remote Windows environments. They decided to usescripts for enterprise applications through PowerShell. Why does the functionality notwork?
A. WMI must be configured.
B. Symlinks must be enabled.
C. Ext4 must be implemented.
D. MBR must be set up.
Question # 5
Which management concept best describes developing, operating, maintaining, upgrading, and disposing of all resources?
A. configuration
B. vulnerability
C. asset
D. patch
Question # 6
What is a difference between rule-based and role-based access control mechanisms?
A. Rule-based are simple and easy to execute, and role-based are well-defined.
B. Role-based are an appropriate choice in geographically diverse workgroups, and rulebased are for simply structured workgroups.
C. Rule-based are less granular, and role-based have time constraints.
D. Role-based are efficient in small workgroups, and rule-based are preferred in timedefined workgroups.
Question # 7
What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?
A. Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4. and deep packet inspection verifies
connection at Layer 7.
B. Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7.
C. Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4.
D. Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7, and stateful inspection allows
visibility on Layer 4.
Question # 8
Which attack method is being used when an attacker tries to compromise a network with an authentication system that uses only 4-digit numeric passwords and no username?
A. SQL injection
B. dictionary
C. replay
D. cross-site scripting
Question # 9
What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
A. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.
B. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.
C. Tampered images are used as evidence.
D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
Question # 10
A network engineer discovers that a foreign government hacked one of the defensecontractors in their home country and stole intellectual property. What is the threat agent inthis situation?
A. the intellectual property that was stolen
B. the defense contractor who stored the intellectual property
C. the method used to conduct the attack
D. the foreign government that conducted the attack
Question # 11
A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware.Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system. Which securityconcepts are present in this scenario?
A. exploit and patching
B. risk and evidence
C. analysis and remediation
D. vulnerability and threat
Question # 12
Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choosetwo.)
A. UDP port to which the traffic is destined
B. TCP port from which the traffic was sourced
C. source IP address of the packet
D. destination IP address of the packet
E. UDP port from which the traffic is sourced
Question # 13
How does certificate authority impact a security system?
A. It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate
B. It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate
C. It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate
D. It validates client identity when communicating with the server
Question # 14
An organization that develops high-end technology is going through an internal audit Theorganization uses two databases The main database stores patent information and asecondary database stores employee names and contact information A compliance team isasked to analyze the infrastructure and identify protected data Which two types ofprotected data should be identified? (Choose two)
A. Personally Identifiable Information (Pll)
B. Payment Card Industry (PCI)
C. Protected Hearth Information (PHI)
D. Intellectual Property (IP)
E. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)
Question # 15
What is a difference between an inline and a tap mode traffic monitoring?
A. Inline monitors traffic without examining other devices, while a tap mode tags traffic andexamines the data from monitoring devices.
B. Tap mode monitors traffic direction, while inline mode keeps packet data as it passes through the monitoring devices.
C. Tap mode monitors packets and their content with the highest speed, while the inlinemode draws a packet path for analysis
D. Inline mode monitors traffic path, examining any traffic at a wire speed, while a tap mode
monitors traffic as it crosses the network.
Question # 16
How is attacking a vulnerability categorized?
A. action on objectives
B. delivery
C. exploitation
D. installation
Question # 17
An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurredon the network. What is the impact of this traffic?
A. ransomware communicating after infection
B. users downloading copyrighted content
C. data exfiltration
D. user circumvention of the firewall
Question # 18
A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of thecompany's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set ofapplications on all PCs.Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?
A. application whitelisting/blacklisting
B. network NGFW
C. host-based IDS
D. antivirus/antispyware software
Question # 19
What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption?
A. A key is generated on demand according to data type.
B. A one-time encryption key is generated for data transmission
C. It is suited for transmitting large amounts of data.
D. It is a faster encryption mechanism for sessions
Question # 20
The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targeting the organization. Theteam's approach is to push back the cyber kill chain and mitigate ongoing incidents. Atwhich phase of the cyber kill chain should the security team mitigate this type of attack?
A. actions
B. delivery
C. reconnaissance
D. installation
Question # 21
A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is thisevent?
A. Vaporization
B. Delivery
C. reconnaissance
D. Action on objectives
Question # 22
What is the impact of encryption?
A. Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated
B. Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals
C. Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved
D. Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it
Question # 23
Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?
A. statistical data
B. alert data
C. transaction data
D. metadata
Question # 24
What is the purpose of command and control for network-aware malware?
A. It contacts a remote server for commands and updates
B. It takes over the user account for analysis
C. It controls and shuts down services on the infected host.
D. It helps the malware to profile the host
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